One of the things I hope to get out of blogging is interaction with people who are in later stages of scholarship than I. Whereas most "academic" blogs give you plenty of insightful posts and fill your head with information, I may be inclined to ask questions from time to time.
So, lo and behold, I have a question about English translations of Romans 3:23. In Greek, the verse is:
παντες γαρ ημαρτον και υστερουνται της δοξης του θεου
My question centers around ημαρτον. I realize that it's Aorist (sinned), but in most English translations it's translated into the perfect (have sinned). Is it because of the possible theological implications behind "For all sinned" (i.e. it could be said that it's a past event of generations long ago)? Are there other instances where the aorist is translated into the perfect? Is this just to satisfy something on the English end of things, or is this how the original audience would've understood it? Can one really make an entire paragraph out of questions?!